I think in this, we should be using the "without (important) characteristics" definition of neutral. Bias implies a level of agency that I just can't assign to a word. It personifies, assigns intent, and that's a whole other conversation. The only intent in a word is what the humans using it assign to it.
You accepted the assumption without issue. You've changed your mind after seeing where it leads you?
Bias
noun
1. inclination or prejudice for or against one person or group, especially in a way considered to be unfair.
Intent is where? A die can be biased to land on one face, and it lacks intent.
True. However, you're using two different definitions of the word "he" to do so. One of which cannot be used to refer to anyone of any known gender. Its homonym, on the other hand, only refers to known males.
No. I've gone over this before, and you've ignored it.
One last time: The only difference between the use of "He" as a masculine pronoun and as a default pronoun is whether the user knows the gender of the subject. There are no other differences. It is an assumption, not a homonym.
The words are far too close in meaning for them to be considered separately. This is not like
bow and
bow, nor even like
arrow and
arrow.
They are the same word, with one situational element altered. Their meaning is not independent of each other.
In order to be gender-neutral, "He" would need to be usable for both genders in all situations it can be used in. It cannot be used for a known woman. This, it is used for men and people of unknown gender as an assumption. This is a bias. It has a masculine connotation, and I defy you to argue otherwise.
In order to be genderless, it would need to have no gendered meaning. It does, and I defy you to argue otherwise.
Also, I will remind you that you have argued against the use of "male" as a gender term.
This, I disagree on. You've yet to prove to me that this is a bias. Feel free to try to do so, I'm sure it'll at least be an interesting conversation. But all you've been doing is claiming this is a bias without showing how or why. You once called it "self evident". And I call that bullshit. Nothing is "self evident". Either it's physically observable, and thus you can mechanically prove it, or it's a belief.
I just did, but once again: He cannot be used to knowingly refer to a woman, but it can be used to knowingly refer to a man. This is self-evidently a masculine aspect of the word.
You assert that a third use of the word, for a person of unknown gender, makes it neutral, ignoring the more common use of the word and all related connotations.
Let me illustrate this.
He is used for
A Man
|
True
|
A Woman
|
False
|
Unknown
|
True
|
Unknown may have either gender, so we may class it as a null result with no bias, or as a double result with no bias. That leaves the word biased towards a masculine meaning.
If you can use the same pronoun for one gender, but not the other, it is not gender-neutral. Given the meaning of the words, this is self-evident.
It certainly can.
"No one is to come through this door. If anyone tries, shoot him." This is entirely valid English. There is no confusion as to the "him" at the end. There's no assumption of who the him is or what the he will be doing. And unless the guard's a goddamn idiot, a woman who tries is facing the same fate as a man. Gender. Neutral.
False. Masculine pronoun possessing masculine connotation used as default because of literally hundreds of years of sexism. The connotation has not been removed.
The gendered use of "she" is more common than needing an unknown gender pronoun of any sort as well. So this point is true, but irrelevant.
Quite relevant, unless you think that a native speaker is going to forget that "He" is the pronoun for a man.
I still disagree. This is where it falls apart, because you're applying an opinion of "because one, then not the other" in a place where you just haven't been giving it substantiation.
It's a lot like saying that because apples are (culturally thought of as) red, and tomatoes are (culture again) red, and cherries are (still culture) red, then that means the color red in the culture cannot be associated with things other than fruit. That metaphor works here almost directly. It's not that 'he' is not a gendered pronoun. It's that it is not only a gendered pronoun. In the same way red does not only mean fruit. Although there is a pretty strong cultural association (in America, at the very least) between 'red' and 'fruit'. It's also associated with blood and caution/danger. Thus why it's on our stop signs and lights. Shorthand for "pay attention you moron".
... Very well, If we are to use metaphor and the like.
A box of sound construction is placed on a sturdy surface under a waterfall. Care is taken that the box cannot slip, nor be tipped. Five hours later, is the box empty?
It is not, as water will fill it.
"He" is used for the purpose of identifying a third person. The most common use is to identify a person who is known to be male.
This gives it a masculine connotation, that it cannot shake while it is still in use for that purpose. This connotation is the water.
In order for the word to be gender-neutral, it needs to be free of that connotation or in possession of a second.
"He" has historically used for the purpose of identifying a third person of indeterminate gender. This use began in a sexist society in which women were treated as chattel. It is very clearly an assumption.
If you wish to use argument from tradition, keep that in mind.
These aren't proofs. You are providing a lot of correct facts, in much the same way I can provide a lot of correct facts about the association of red and fruit. But then draw an unsubstantiated conclusion from it.
Maybe correct, maybe not- but an entirely unsubstantiated one nonetheless.
If my assumptions are sound, then my logic is sound.
If my logic is sound, then my conclusion is sound.
My assumptions were sound, as you agreed. "He" has a masculine meaning, but no feminine meaning.
My logic lead me to the conclusion that neither genderless nor gender-neutral words can have one meaning but not the other.
Ergo, "He" is not gender-neutral. Historic use of the word has no bearing on this. Nothing does. As long as my assumptions are correct, my logic is sound.
I have logically proven that "He" is not gender-neutral. You claim to recognise logic before emotion or politics.
Prove it.
I am asking you to substantiate that claim. Prove that because it does one, it cannot do the other. You claim this a lot, in fact I think it's the whole skeleton of your argument. But you're failing to provide evidence to that effect. Merely your opinion.
And that's fine, you're entitled to that opinion. You're just not entitled to pretend it's fact. And I am entitled to a different one until actual evidence shows that said opinion is flawed. At which point, I promise you I'll change it, and I'll acknowledge the factualness of the other opinion... but if you want that to happen, then I need the evidence, the science. The substantiation of your claims that takes it beyond opinion and into fact. Or I need to change my mind about my opinion, but that's far less likely considering my current opinion runs on mechanical fact.
You like metaphor. Here.
Consider a hermaphrodite. In order to be a biological hermaphrodite, a being must have both male and female sexual organs. Such a being can act as either sex.
Without female sexual organs, such a being is not a hermaphrodite. They are male, though they may identify otherwise.
Likewise, without male sexual organs, such a being is not a hermaphrodite. They are female, though they may identify otherwise.
One might compare a hermaphrodite to a gender-neutral pronoun, as both can function in either role. It's not a perfect comparison, of course, as a gender-neutral pronoun has another valid use.
A neuter word is one without gender. A genderless word is a neuter word. A gender-neutral word can be a neuter word. A gendered word cannot, in the same way that a meal containing nuts cannot be nut free.
My proof is logic. You claim to respect that, but if you want more?
Then you're a liar. Disprove my assumptions, or accept them. The burden of proof is now yours.
Here's mine in a nutshell:
1) People are inventing new words to be a nongendered singular pronoun. Fact.
2) This is annoying as hell. Opinion. I'm not going to argue if you disagree. But it's goddamn annoying.
The most revered poet in the English language was rather well known for making up words. As was Tolkien, and to a lesser extent Rowling.
English has a nongendered singular pronoun, that being "They". A
number of people take issue with using it in this way, citing confusion of singular vs. plural. Some, like you, continue to use "He" as has been tradition, apparently unaware of
their hypocrisy.
Some have decided that as English is an evolving language, they'll come up with their own.
3) The word 'it' is our primary nongendered pronoun. It is considered highly insulting and dehumanizing to use it to use this to refer to people, however.
True.
4) English already has nongendered pronouns to use to refer to people. Singular they is a slang option. Use of 'one' is an option. Both of these are ill defined in their usage.
"They" is quite clear, actually. As for being slang, that's disputed.
5) English also has 'he' as a nongendered pronoun. It is much more clearly defined in the language, functions as seemlessly within the standard rules of English grammar as anything can be expected to in this quagmire of a language. And isn't treating people as a nonhuman when it's used.
And as I have proven, it is gendered.
6) Actually, that's it. In fact, we can eliminate 1, 2 and 4 as well. Although parts of 4 are necessary. The whole point is English already has a functioning gender neutral pronoun in the exceedingly rare if we need one. We have a gender neutral pronoun already to exploit.
Yes, "They". It, unlike "He", is completely lacking in gender.
You cannot sit there and try to claim it's a fact that 'he' is not a gender neutral pronoun when it clearly gets used as such in English all the time. You want to argue that it shouldn't? I disagree, but that opinion can certainly be changed if the argument's good. I'm vastly less emotionally invested in pronouns than you seem to be. Make your case to me on why it should not be used and I'm all ears But you cannot rationally argue the fact that it exists.
Argument by tradition and argument by majority.
If something has been incorrect for a significant amount of time, it does not become correct.
If a majority believe something incorrect, it does not become correct.
English has evolved alongside English culture. Two centuries ago, long after "He" became the default address for an unknown third person, women in the United Kingdom could not vote, nor own property.
Tell me, does that sound like a culture that would produce a gender-neutral term?
You argue for tradition, but ignore context. Stop.
So if you want to debate the validity of "he" as a word based on your opinion, please do so. But stop arguing the sky isn't blue just because you like the pink sunsets better.
And again you ignore or miss my point.
I am aware the word is in use, but logic proves that it has a gender bias. Ergo, it cannot be gender-neutral,
no matter what anyone says.
Words are cheap, but logic does not care about tradition. It finds truth, provided it is given the correct information.
Too long?
In order for "He" to be gender-neutral, you'd need to be able to use it for anyone.